Why is Pedophilia Categorized as a Disorder?

[evensaul]

...homosexuality per se implies no impairment in judgment, reliability or general social and vocational capabilities"

Are necrophilia and pedophilia matters of "judgment, reliability or general social and vocational capabilities"? I don't think so. What does or doesn't give you a boner has nothing to do with those issues. Something either turns you on or it doesn't.

---------- Post added at 05:35 PM ---------- Previous post was at 05:08 PM ----------

But to be clear, I do not accept that it's a sexual orientation.

This is nothing more than unsupported opinion, and is rejected.

And that's because unlike other "sexual orientations", pedophilia fits the definition of a paraphilia while the other sexual orientations do not.

And the classification as paraphilia is rejected as unsupported.

Actually, nowadays it's pretty much unanimous amongst medial and psychiatric professionals that pedophilia is a disorder and homosexuality is not and I'm quite sure if one is to research how such conclusions were reached, they would find a lot of professional studies and evidence and logic supporting those conclusions.

I forget the name for this fallacy - claiming evidence would support your claim if it was looked for, but it is clearly a bogus argument. Go find and post your evidence if you want it considered.

If you are going to argue that the CURRENT status is determined not by credible research and such but mere alignment with public opinion, you will need to support it. And again, I'm referring to NOWADAYS so what happened back in the early 70s is not particularly relevant.

Been there, done that.

And besides that, I don't need to appeal to experts to believe that one is a disorder and the other is not. Speaking in general terms, whether something is a disorder or not is dependent on whether it is harmful.

Harmful to whom? Where are you getting this definition?

Pedophilia, when practiced, CONSISTENTLY causes harm.

If a guy wacks off to his own drawings of children, is that causing harm? To whom?

[futureboy]

Are necrophilia and pedophilia matters of "judgment, reliability or general social and vocational capabilities"? I don't think so. What does or doesn't give you a boner has nothing to do with those issues. Something either turns you on or it doesn't.

The statement you quoted is part of a completely separate area of discussion which has no bearing on how paedophilic disorder is classified.

[evensaul]

My argument, fb, is that the same logic and reasoning should apply to each and every sexual orientation. If homosexuality is not a disorder according to certain reasoning, then that same reasoning must be applied to necrophilia and pedophilia. Do you disagree?

[mican333]

This is nothing more than unsupported opinion, and is rejected.

Likewise your argument that pedophilia is a sexual orientation is nothing more than an unsupported opinion and is rejected. If you aren't appealing to the psychiatric professionals on whether it's a sexual orientation, which you aren’t, then all that's left is what you think.

And to be clear, you do have the burden to support that it is before I have to support that it isn't.

As I said in my last post (the portion you ignored):

And before you seek to get me to support what I've said, I'm not offering support for this right now. And that's because the burden is yours. You are arguing that the two should be classified the same and therefore it's your burden to show that my contrary position is incorrect before I have any burden to defend my position. If you choose to not challenge me, then you have no basis to argue that my viewpoint is incorrect and therefore the contrary position, that the two things should be classified as the same, is unsupported.

So I am primarily just saying that I disagree with your position and until you support your side, that's enough.

You can reject my opinions but then I likewise reject your opinions and you will need to base your argument on something more than your opinions before they can be considered supported.

And the classification as paraphilia is rejected as unsupported.

And the position that pedophilia is not paraphilia or disorder is rejected as unsupported.

I forget the name for this fallacy - claiming evidence would support your claim if it was looked for, but it is clearly a bogus argument. Go find and post your evidence if you want it considered.

No problem. Here ya go!

"The longstanding consensus of scientific research and clinical literature demonstrate that same-sex sexual and romantic attractions, feelings, and behaviors are normal and positive variations of human sexuality. There is now a large body of scientific evidence that indicates that being gay, lesbian, or bisexual is compatible with normal mental health and social adjustment."

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Homose...and_psychology

Now, would you say the same thing about an attraction to children likewise is a "normal and positive variations of human sexuality" and " is compatible with normal mental health and social adjustment".

And assuming the answer is "no", then they belong in different categories for one is a normal and positive variations of human sexuality and the other is not a normal and positive variations of human sexuality.

So they are clearly different in a relevant fashion and therefore should be categorized in some way to differentiate them.

And again, the burden is yours to show that they should be categorized similarly so if you are going to support your position, you have to provide support for that. Just challenging what I provided will not suffice.

Harmful to whom? Where are you getting this definition?

Harmful to either oneself or others. And I'm speaking from my best understanding of the issue which is the only option if you are going to reject the definitions as provided by the experts.

And it's not my burden to convince you anyway. You can subjectively say that a desire for sex with children is not particularly harmful and challenge any notion that it is until the end of time. But then again, it's not my burden to convince you. It's your burden to show that the desire to have sex with children and the desire to have sex with adult members of your own gender is essentially the same in all relevant ways when it comes to disorder/paraphilia. You not being convinced that they shouldn't be differentiated does not even begin to equate support for your position. And you inventing your own criteria and rejecting all differing criteria does not do it either. If you want to reject the professional criteria and present your own, you may. And if it is clear and makes sense to me, I will even accept it. But you will need to support your use of alternative criteria before you can support using it.

So stop shifting the burden and explain why someone who doesn't already agree with what you think should agree that the two things should be categorized the same.

[futureboy]

My argument, fb, is that the same logic and reasoning should apply to each and every sexual orientation.

No, your argument, per the OP, is that paedophilia is classified as a disorder because of laws but it shouldn't be, which you've failed to support. If you want to make a separate argument, then please forward it and provide support.

If homosexuality is not a disorder according to certain reasoning, then that same reasoning must be applied to necrophilia and pedophilia. Do you disagree?

Of course I do, since the acts involved and their consequences are completely different, which is why necrophilia and paedophilia are not commonly considered to be sexual orientations. The main difference being that the common sexual orientations involve sexual acts between consenting adults, whereas necrophilia and paedophilia do not. Another difference is the distress which necrophilia and paedophilia cause to the person with the desires and/or the object of the desires.